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I know it is common to use neither + nor to talk about two things, but what if I use nor as follows:

He doesn't have permission to enter the room, nor I have the right to request permission for him.

Is this correct?

closed as off-topic by Edwin Ashworth, anongoodnurse, Chenmunka, Julie Carter, FumbleFingers Sep 1 '15 at 13:04

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With the sentence edited to read, "He doesn't have permission to enter the room, nor do I have the right to request permission for him." yes you used it correctly.

  • Thanks for the correction! May I ask you one more question? If I want to use neither + nor for the sentence, it should be simply change "He don't have permission" to "Neither he have"? – King Chan Aug 14 '15 at 3:43
  • I am sorry, I don't understand the question. Do you mean, "Neither of us have" referring to you and the person without permission? If you mean you and he each lack permission, that is fine. If you have established that someone doesn't have something you can use "nor does" to indicate that a 2nd party also lacks it. Hopefully that helped. – Yeshe Aug 14 '15 at 4:41
  • I just mean to say the same sentence in different way using "neither" and "nor". I guess this sentence doesn't make sense with using "neither" and "nor"? Because I (2nd party) can have permission to enter room, but only no right to request permission for him. I was trying to say "Neither he have permission to enter the room, nor I have the right to request permission for him", but sounds wrong....... – King Chan Aug 14 '15 at 5:09
  • You are right, you shouldn't word it that way. "Neither" would be for comparing two things that are similarly negative. "Neither" and "nor" do compliment each other nicely normally, but in this instance you would only use "nor" – Yeshe Aug 14 '15 at 5:18

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