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I'm trying to translate a sentence out of a book, and the author is talking about the past and I'm not sure which one is correct, the sentence goes like this:

She was so alone, I was the only one she knew, but She didn't even had me/has me/have me.

And why?

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    This is a question about basic English. I think it would be more suited to English Language Learners. – chasly from UK Jul 31 '15 at 21:21
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    I suggest you read about how auxiliary verbs are used. The verb "to do" takes the bare infinitive of the main verb. - grammaring.com/do-does-did-bare-infinitive – chasly from UK Jul 31 '15 at 21:24
  • Yep thanks, didn't know about the other one! – Sohail Jul 31 '15 at 21:38
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I understand it as :

She was so alone (= alone to such a degree that) that I was the only one she knew, but she didn't even (at that time/in that place/in those circumstances) have me.

If that is the meaning, only "have me" makes sense. As an alternative, you might have written "... knew, but she had not even me."

All are references to the past, so you cannot use the present tense "have". You could use "have" in a past conditional construct such as "... knew, but she could not (at that time/in that place/in those circumstances) have even me.

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