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Sometime, people put a question mark at the end of a sentence and use it to ask something. Instead using an interrogative sentence:

Do you like it?
You like it?

I think it is more often to someone who is not good at English.

As I am Korean, however, I realized that I also often and frequently violate Korean grammar. And I can't keep that all.

So, my question is:

  1. Is it common for the native to use a declarative sentence as interrogative?
  2. Is it hard to understand in a short time?
  3. How are your societies tolerant to this?
    • Is this regarded as impolite or rude?
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    I have noticed this myself in different circumstances. Sometimes people will write "I was wondering if you were hungry?" even though the question mark at the end of the sentence is incorrect. In this case, it's just bad punctuation, but it is common.
    – Kingrames
    Jul 10 '15 at 17:35
  • None of the examples in the question, the comments, or the one answer (at the time of this comment) seem to me like declarative statements; even if one removes the ?, all of them are structurally formed as questions (as in, the speaker is not sure of your attitude or situation; he does not know how you will answer).
    – Dan Bron
    Jul 10 '15 at 18:06
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    It is fine as is, and is standard English. There is no violation of grammar. They are grammatical. These types of sentences are known as declarative questions (w.r.t. H&P's CGEL, and are discussed on pages 181-3).
    – F.E.
    Jul 10 '15 at 18:43
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    A question always has to have inversion? Or you think it needs a wh-word? I should always have to spell things out? Intonation doesn't count anymore?
    – Greg Lee
    Jul 10 '15 at 19:47
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    The question mark indicates that the spoken sentence would be understood as a question -- ie, it has a rising tone at the end, typical of a question in English. It's use is perfectly legitimate. Further, the absence of a question mark following an apparent question in (well-written) dialog would suggest that, even though the words appear to be a question, the tone of voice did not imply one.
    – Hot Licks
    Jul 10 '15 at 19:48
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We understand it, provided there is a rising inflection at the end of the question.

If a non-native speaker says it, we make allowances but it makes us aware of their lack of knowledge of the language.

If you hear a native speaker say it then it is an affectation - probably used when speaking to friends or family.

If you think you hear a native speaker say it, they may be saying D'you like it?" with a very lightly pronounced 'd'.

If a native speaker writes it in a text or email then they are simply abbreviating to save their fingers. It would not be used in formal writing.

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    You really think so? You're sure about that? That is, definitely, what you think? You don't think you could be wrong? (By the way, I'm just looking to give a few examples that come to mind - I'm not disagreeing with you so vehemently I feel the need to state it in four different ways!) Unless there's a generation gap, you and I have quite different experiences. I hear and use this a lot and would certainly never consider it an 'affectation'.
    – Au101
    Jul 10 '15 at 22:28
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I have to take issue with the answer above. Its not a question of affectation, its just colloquial usage. And we're not talking about declarative sentences either, it's just that the modal verb isn't used, to make it shorter.

For instance:

( do) You know what I mean?

(Did) you get my message? ( though this would usually be more like d'you get my message?)

(Have) you talked to him yet? Bottom line, it's just a case of dropping the modal verb, which often happens.

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