3

Today I came across this NY Times' article, where it's written:

Talking to people at newspapers makes it seem as if the future of comments is all social log-ins and filtering algorithms.

But I didn't quite understand why it says "it seem" instead of "it seems".

Can anybody explain it to me?

Thanks a bunch.

  • I've never come across anyone saying "It seem", other than when listening to people speak pidgin. – Blessed Geek Jul 5 '15 at 8:30
  • 1
    @BlessedGeek yet the example given is not pidgin. – phoog Jul 5 '15 at 8:33
  • Sorry, didn't read the question details. I was thinking "it seems". Didn't realise, the question was about something else. – Blessed Geek Jul 5 '15 at 9:27
5

Seem here is the infinitive. It, anyway, is an object, not a subject (consider: her hat makes her seem aloof, not makes she seem aloof).

The infinitive, appearing without the preposition to, is called the bare infinitive. A discussion can be found here: http://www.grammaring.com/make-object-bare-infinitive

  • Ok, I get it. And this only happens with these structures: "HAVE, GET, LET, MAKE + object + infinitive", meaning "force someone to do something they do not want to do", right? – Rogério R. Alcântara Jul 5 '15 at 8:50
  • @RogérioRodriguesdeAlcântara the meaning is not always "force someone to do something they do not want to do" and there are other verbs that can use this construction. "Help" comes to mind, for example. – phoog Jul 5 '15 at 9:03

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.