why we use have with I. according to rule have use with plural.

  • That's not the rule. The rule is "has" with third person singular. English verbs used to have much more complicated conjugations, and this is the remnant that survives. Middle English: I have, thou hast, he hast, we haven, ye haven, they haven. – Peter Shor Jun 17 '15 at 15:28
  • @Peter: small gripe - that seems more like Early Modern English. – Jascol Jun 17 '15 at 15:40
  • And it maybe should be he hath, not he hast. But you get the idea; there used to be three different singular forms (1st, 2nd, 3rd person) and one plural form. The second person singular (thou) dropped out of use, and the first person and the plural, being similar, converged. – Peter Shor Jun 17 '15 at 15:40
  • @PeterShor I missed all the fun while looking for links to singular they – Hugh Jun 17 '15 at 15:54
  • 2
    “According to rule have use with plural” does not make any sense, so I’m not sure exactly what you’re trying to ask. But if you’re saying that the rule is that we use the ‘plural form’ of a verb with the first person singular (‘I’), then that is wrong. There is no such rule, and there never has been. The rule is that in the present indicative, a special form that ends in -s is used in the third singular (‘he/she/it’) and only there. Everywhere else, the plain form is used. Exceptions: to be, which has special, irregular forms; and modal auxiliaries, which do not have -s forms at all. – Janus Bahs Jacquet Jun 17 '15 at 16:26

Has is the exception:

I have
'Thou hast' has become singular you You have
'He has', or 'She has'; is being replace by singular They have

(or it will very likely be replaced over the next 100 yrs)

and the rest you know already

We have
You have
They have

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