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I googled this question but didn't find any information about it. Can I use "I will have had something by 2016" when I want to say that I will own this when 2016 begin?

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  • 'I will have had' is complex, especially as it mixes usages of 'had'. 'I will have bought / received / acquired / won ... ____ by / before 2016' sounds more natural. Jun 16 '15 at 19:20
  • Yes, you can. You were able to say that last year, and you will have been able to say it in 2017.
    – Drew
    Jun 16 '15 at 20:38
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You can say it, but you will probably get an astonished reaction. Why use such a complicated tense as F2 (future perfect) when a short "I'll" would be sufficient

  • I'll have my diploma by 2016.

F2 is used very seldom and if it is used it is not used as the Latin Futur II is used. Simply because jumping to a time point in the future and looking backwards to say what has been done then is a very complicated thing, not appropriate for normal language.

As to F2 you have to study when it is used. But that is no urgent problem for a learner.

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  • There are contexts (absent from the question, granted) in which "will have had" would be preferred, however.
    – phoog
    Jun 16 '15 at 17:54
  • "I will have had all my surgeries by 2016"
    – Jim Mack
    Jun 16 '15 at 18:05
  • I would say here someone wants to show that he has learnt how to form F2, but not when not to use it . Or it shows that he has learnt Latin and uses it as it was done in Latin.
    – rogermue
    Jun 16 '15 at 19:53

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