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I come across the following piece and don't understand the last sentence in the light of the first one.

This suggests that the resulting proportion of true pedophiles among persons with a homosexual erotic development is greater than that in persons who develop heterosexually. This, of course, would not indicate that androphilic males have a greater propensity to offend against children.

More precisely, I don't understand who the 'androphilic males' are not included among the 'persons with a homosexual erotic development' and, as a consequence, don't understand what that piece means.

So, from a strictly language perspective, can anybody explain why "androphilic males" would not be included among 'persons with a homosexual erotic development'?

Reference → http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/1556756

  • the passage in question is nothing more than "slightly confused writing". So what? Nothing to see here. Re your penultimate paragraph, the writer is just using (in a confused way, it's a poorly written confused mess) two difference phrases in two different sentences, as one does to avoid repetition. Nothing of any interest here for this site. – Fattie Jun 5 '15 at 3:23
  • Why did you not simply Google the term? There is a Wikipedia article that explains it pretty well. – Hot Licks Jan 17 '17 at 13:02
  • Please include the research you've done, or consider if your question suits our English Language Learners site better. Questions that can be answered using commonly-available references are off-topic. – Hot Licks Jan 17 '17 at 13:03
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This suggests that the resulting proportion of true pedophiles among persons with a homosexual erotic development is greater than that in persons who develop heterosexually. This, of course, would not indicate that androphilic males have a greater propensity to offend against children.

A strict translation leaving politics out of it:

This suggests that true pedophiles are more common among homosexuals than heterosexuals, but does not mean that homosexuals are more likely to commit crimes against children.

This is because child abuse is often committed by heterosexuals as a crime of opportunity/other, rather than an erotic orientation towards children.

  • A good point--the abstract specifically implies that the "true pedophiles" are only a subset "among various groups of sex offenders against children". – herisson Jun 5 '15 at 1:40
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    Indeed. The elephant in the room here, which the OP's quote (well rewritten by Medica) is attempting to combat, is the popular belief that "all pedophiles are homosexuals" or even, alas, that "all homosexuals are pedophiles". Just ask your auntie. – David Pugh Jun 5 '15 at 7:09
  • But all of this is really about homosexual men, not homosexuals in general. The abstract is confused and confusing, but that is what they mean. – Cerberus_Reinstate_Monica Jun 5 '15 at 11:11
6

Androphilic means "man-loving", so a person who likes men. An androphilic male is by definition an homosexual man.

I don't see what androphilia per se has to do with homosexuality, though, since homosexual women do not like men. The abstract states the ratio of gynephiles [sic] to androphiles among the general population is approximately 20:1, which is patently wrong: about the same number of people like men as like women. The abstract is confused; based on context, it appears they mean the ratio of gynaecophilic men to androphilic men.

The final sentence of your quotation is meant to indicate that, even though they suspect that the proportion of paedophiles among homosexual men is greater than that among heterosexual men, they do not mean to suggest that homosexual men actually commit sexual acts on children more frequently than heterosexual men, proportionally. (So they seem to suggest that it is possible that those homosexual paedophilic men act on their paedophilic desires less frequently than heterosexual paedophilic men, proportionally.)

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    The entire paper seems to implicitly be restricted in scope to male offenders. (Otherwise, the statement "the ratio of gynephiles to androphiles among the general population is approximately 20:1" would be pretty inexplicable, as you state.) – herisson Jun 5 '15 at 1:42
  • Besides the possibility you suggest in the last sentence, it just occurred to me that it may also be possible that "androphilic" is here being used as a contrasting term to "pedophilic": that is, the authors are trying to stress that homosexual men attracted to other adult men are not any more likely than "gynophilic" men (attracted to adult women) to sexually abuse children. This could be true even if the proportion of pedophilic individuals is greater among homosexual men than among heterosexual men. – herisson Jun 5 '15 at 1:50
  • @Sumelic: I think you nailed it. In some cultures, such as the Classical, the alternative sexual object for a man is not an another man, but a boy. Perhaps we need three terms not two. The Ancients did: you did not expect to find "boy-lovers" in bed with another bearded male. – David Pugh Jun 5 '15 at 7:11
  • Even without the young/adult distinction (which I hadn't thought to read into this at all), it is not true that androphilic men are by definition homosexuals. Any man who is sexually attracted to men is androphilic; but being homosexual means being exclusively attracted to men. Bisexual men are the biggest group of non-homosexual male androphilics. – Janus Bahs Jacquet Jun 5 '15 at 9:30
  • @sumelic That is possible, although I would have expected something about that distinction in the abstract... – Cerberus_Reinstate_Monica Jun 5 '15 at 11:17
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+25

Short answer: Yes, androphilic or "man-loving" males are persons with homosexual or "same-sex" erotic development. In fact in the first sentence of this article, Freund and Wilson define androphilia as "an erotic preference for physically mature males." But the groups are not synonymous.

NB: This study was published in 1992, both scientific and popular usage has changed in the last 20 years. In this case, "homosexual" doesn't mean what we now call "Gay" but is being used in the older, strict sense to mean "same-sex" (e.g., either male pedophile and boy victim or female pedophile and girl victim). For what most people would now consider "Gay" or the CDC would refer to as "MSM," this article uses androphilic instead.

This suggests that the resulting proportion of true pedophiles

defined in the study as men who have been convicted of sexual crimes against children and who get measurable erections when shown pictures of prepubescent girls or boys

among persons with a homosexual erotic development

men who have a history of sexual attraction toward, or involvement with, men or boys

is greater than that in persons who develop heterosexually.

men who have a history of sexual attraction toward, or involvement with, women or girls

This, of course, would not indicate that androphilic males

men who are sexually attracted to other grown men

have a greater propensity to offend against children.

To paraphrase, this early study suggests that compared to the percentages of straight and gay men, a higher than expected proportion of convicted child molesters were sexually attracted to, or involved with, males than females; however, this doesn't mean that gay men (being attracted to men) are more likely to molest kids.

1

I think that it's the other way round: 'androphilic males' includes 'persons with a homosexual erotic development', and also other people - sorry, persons. Ergo, the fact that active homosexuals are more likely to be sex offenders does not mean that all homosexuals are more likely to be so.

The insistence on not offending any pressure group has led to a point where it is difficult to follow the grammar, almost impossible to follow the logic, and entirely impossible to follow the medical argument. This may not be seen by the writer as a bad thing.

1
+50

From Wikipedia

'Use of terms androphilia and gynephilia (sic) was proposed and popularized by psychologist Ron Langevin in the 1980s.

Psychologist Stephen T. Wegener writes, "Langevin makes several concrete suggestions regarding the language used to describe sexual anomalies. For example, he proposes the terms gynephilic and androphilic to indicate the type of partner preferred regardless of an individual's gender identity or dress. Those who are writing and researching in this area would do well to adopt his clear and concise vocabulary.

... Sexologist Milton Diamond,( who prefers the correctly formed term gynecophilia) , writes, "The terms heterosexual, homosexual, and bisexual are better used as adjectives, not nouns, and are better applied to behaviors, not people.

Diamond has encouraged - using the terms androphilic, gynecophilic, and ambiphilic to describe the sexual-erotic partners one prefers (andro = male, gyneco – female, ambi = both, philic = to love)- . Such terms eliminate the need to specify the subject and focus instead on the desired partner. This usage is particularly advantageous when discussing the partners of transsexual or intersexed individuals. These newer terms also do not carry the social weight of the former ones."'

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The answer to the actual question is yes, androphilic males are persons with a homosexual erotic development.

There is nothing in the passage to suggest that androphilic males are not included among the persons with a homosexual erotic development… the two groups are simply mentioned from different perspectives.

The set of (presumably all) persons with homosexual erotic development is clearly not limited to androphilic males - particularly not in a passage like that. It presumably includes gynephilic females and from the information given, there is no reason to suppose that either set does or does not include ‘true pedophiles’. There isn’t enough information to indicate whether androphilic males have a greater propensity to offend against children. Presumably children do have a greater likelihood of being offended against by those guys, and those aren't corollary ideas.

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