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I know that just because I am allowing something, it doesn't necessarily mean that I am desiring that something.

But does "desiring" automatically imply "allowing"?

for instance, does it make sense to say:

"If a teacher desires her students to use iPad in her class, then the teacher will allow her students to use the iPad in her class."

or

"If a mom desires her boy to taste her new soup, then the mom will allow her boy to taste the new soup."

Thank you,

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No, "desiring" does not generally imply "allowing." It is easy to think of cases in which a person desiring something might not necessarily allow it, or would at least want to be asked for permission before allowing it.

Here are some examples grounded in contemporary discourse regarding sexual rights:

(Ex. 1) Suppose Alice desires to sleep with Bob. But Alice, for personal reasons, is also determined not to sleep with anyone, which trumps her desire to sleep with Bob. Consequently, she will not allow Bob to sleep with her, even though she may desire it.

(Ex. 2) Suppose Alice wants to sleep with Bob. Alice tells Bob this. Bob tells Alice that he desires to sleep with her. Even though mutual desire has been established, both parties should obtain express consent from the other party. There are many good reasons for this, one of them being to prevent misunderstandings. Strictly legally speaking, neither party may presume that desire implies permission.

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