I would like to learn whether or not there is any connotation held by the phrase 'after which' when used to start a sentence.

I recently read 'The Hundred-Year-Old Man Who Climbed Out of The Window and Disappeared' where this is heavily used. The overall tone in the book, which seems to be somewhat humorous and unserious to me, makes me think that the wording in question possesses an comical undertone.

Is this true?

'After which Allan retired for the night.'

Note that I am not a native-speaker, thus I'm having hard times understanding such 'undertone' every now and then.


I have read that book too, and its successor. You're right, it's a part of his style, r the translator's, but I am hard put to analyse the connotation. Cautiously, I would suggest that it is intended, in its matter-of-factness, to augment the realism of the preceding absurdities. For it's arguably magic realism, even if no one has labelled it as such. Anyway, it would be best not to imitate this little 'tic'.

  • Thanks for your thoughts. I do not intend to use the phrasing in such an excessive manner as seen in the book, but rather would like to know if I can use this every once in a while to start a sentence when it seems to be appropriate. – user2422960 May 16 '15 at 10:13
  • 1
    Sounds good to me. I recommend his second book, I thought it better! – David Pugh May 16 '15 at 11:12

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