The formal definition of "beg the question" is a logical fallacy in which the initial assumption of a statement is treated as fact without offering any logic as to why the statement is true in the first place. It does not mean "raise the question".
This is a two part question
1) If I take the definition of beg as being to ask earnestly, then a statement which immediately raises or demands a followup question would be begging. Is there a grammatical reason why this is an incorrect use?
2) The usual answer to question 1 is to cite the definition and its use as a logical fallacy and then state that it does not mean to "raise the question". Is this itself not a logical fallacy, and thus does such an answer not beg the question?