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A lease agreement reads, "If rent is not paid within 3 days of the 1st". Does that mean, the 1st + 3 days == the 4th is the final day to pay rent and the 5th day is in breach?

closed as off-topic by tchrist, Ellie Kesselman, Vilmar, Chenmunka, Misti May 6 '15 at 14:21

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    If you are asking us for a legal interpretation of your lease agreement, please do not do so. Ask your landlord what they mean, or a lawyer if you have one. – DJClayworth May 5 '15 at 1:33
  • Hi @DJClayworth, I'm not asking for legal advise - just wording on a document I wasn't sure I understood. – Matthew Johnson May 5 '15 at 3:05
  • You could certainly argue that the second of the month is within one day of the first, the third is within two days, and the fourth is within three days; but I'm sure that your jurisdiction has a legally established interpretation of that language in a lease, as a point of law—and that's the interpretation that you need to identify, not mine. – Sven Yargs May 5 '15 at 7:37
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Yes.

  • "The first" refers to the actual date: the 1st of the month, we presume.
  • "Within one day of the first" would mean the 2nd.
  • "Within two days of the first" would mean the 3nd.
  • "Within three days of the first" would mean the 4th. Last day to pay.
  • On the 5th of the month, if still unpaid, the contract would be in breach.
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    Thanks - your explanation of the wording through reduction makes it seem so obvious! – Matthew Johnson May 5 '15 at 3:01

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