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What is the difference between saying "He referred to something" and "He made reference to something"?

Is it a question of mood? Emphasis? Agency? Different paths to English since the latter is a common French construction?

I want to say "make reference" but I am wondering if I am just being needlessly wordy.

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  • I would agree that "make reference" is wordier, so I'd prefer "referred to." These days "reference" as a verb is also increasingly common, as in "he referenced something." This is even more concise, which is probably why it's catching on, but as something of a traditionalist, I find it jarring and offputting.
    – phoog
    Commented Apr 30, 2015 at 19:01

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The verb refer has several meanings. One of the meanings is synonymous with the phrase make reference to. The phrase is commonly used so the reader isn't confused (as they would possibly be if refer is used).

Consider:

  1. Tom referred to a book
  2. Tom made reference to a book

The second sentence unambiguously implies Tom alluded to the book, while the first could also mean Tom consulted the book.

Saying 'make reference' is perfectly normal (and increasingly popular, I might add). In my opinion you shouldn't be worried about sounding "needlessly wordy".

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  • Thanks, you make a good point. And I didn't know about that google function, so thank you very much for that. But I still feel like even within the "synonymous" meanings there is some nuance there that I don't quite grasp. Does anyone feel like these are slightly different things?
    – Rick Deckard
    Commented Apr 30, 2015 at 22:27
  • @Tushar, You are kidding right. An increase from 0.0000050% to 0.0000300% is not what I would call "increasingly popular".
    – Pacerier
    Commented Jul 24, 2017 at 12:56
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In my experiences, the two phrases are synonymous. The Collins Dictionary seems to agree.

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