I came to this website searching 'difference between language and grammar' and found this question “What is the difference between grammar and usage?” I thought on what was said there and came to realize the word 'usage' is given its own place as a term. Which seems to be an expression of cognitive fallacy in the development of the language or at least the organization of the rule. Before someone begins their freak out response please give me a chance to finish some more context for the answer I am looking for.
Originally I defined language as the stylized set of rules and assets (all things dealing in individual words) that defines all usability of its spoken and written forms. I looked at a definition of grammar "the whole system and structure of a language or of languages in general, usually taken as consisting of syntax and morphology (including inflections) and sometimes also phonology and semantics." and then another and another till even lexicon and dictation was able to be included under grammar.
Maybe the issue is within the orderability of the many rules. An inability maybe to assign of sequential priority to each rule except maybe categorically. Getting sentence structure right then dealing with plural rules next, as an example. The question may need to be answered if it is in fact appropriate for rules to exist that hold a definitive placing in usability but not covered under grammar. Once again more simply put, is there some sort of definitive reason that separates grammar from usage. I am not qualified to say, but feel that would be what makes Language distinctly different from grammar as it would be comprised of then of more than one super subject.
As a final message to whoever replies I feel strongly someone is capable to define these terms without resorting to examples for pattern matching as substitute for an earnest description.