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Generally, "you've" is used in conjunction with another verb, such as "I see you've arrived" or "She asked if you've seen this".

Is it also acceptable to use "you've" without a second verb, using the "have" as possessive? ex: "I see you've a new car".

marked as duplicate by Janus Bahs Jacquet, Peter Shor , Community Apr 15 '15 at 20:32

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    In the UK and elsewhere outside the USA, probly. In the USA, not so much. – John Lawler Apr 15 '15 at 19:57
  • What @John said. I'm not much good with the algebra, but I think this chart means the US preference for the contracted version has increased a lot in recent decades. – FumbleFingers Apr 15 '15 at 20:21
  • Not only did it not pop up as a recommendation @JanusBahsJacquet, i actually created this account exclusively to ask this question after multiple googles came up with nothing. I suggest you keep your comments a bit more cordial, as these terse reactions only serve to hurt the community in the long run. – Ben Roux Apr 15 '15 at 20:26
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    I'd be pretty sure You've got mail was at the very least popularised by Americans, even if they didn't actually "invent" it. – FumbleFingers Apr 15 '15 at 20:28
  • @BenRoux I’ve just tested, and—strange as it is—you’re absolutely right! None of the other questions about the topic pop up in the “Questions that may already have your answer” list. However, at least four of them do appear in the “Similar questions” box on the right-hand side of the screen when typing in the question. I apologise if my comment came off as brash, but it is the responsibility of the asker of a question to show that they have done some basic research to find an answer to their question, and reviewing the “Similar questions” box is a basic and integral part of doing that. – Janus Bahs Jacquet Apr 15 '15 at 20:34
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No, not in my dialect of American English. And even worse is trying to contract a causative have:

*Be sure you've your papers turned in on time.
*I see that you've your mortgage all paid off.
*We've our accountant get the data he needs on line.

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    I agree the sentences sound rather odd, but i i haven't found a rule indicating it is literally improper. I suppose it may be improper simply by virtue of cultural norms. – Ben Roux Apr 15 '15 at 20:22
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    I don't know what "literally improper" means. What sort of "improper" could there be besides what is imposed by cultural norms? – Greg Lee Apr 15 '15 at 21:13
  • Non-auxiliary have is commonly contracted in Britain in expressions like '... we've a new car now'; '... they've a bigger house than we have'. – Edwin Ashworth May 29 '15 at 8:55

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