Even Smith’s critics do not deny the book’s immense influence. Murray Rothbard levels the criticism that The Wealth of Nations, in fact, eclipsed public knowledge of all economists—better ones, he says— before Smith.
I understand that the writer is saying that the Wealth of the Nations, eclipsed public knowledge of all economists, which means that the book overshadowed the past knowledge of all economists, which were better than Smith. But what is the use of "Before Smith" here ?
Does it mean that these economists were good before Smith emerged?