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I am wondering if the sentence I wrote him. is grammatically correct. Can I wrote him. take the place of I wrote him a letter. and/or I wrote to him.? Can one omit the preposition to? Can one omit the (what I think is) the direct object a letter?

marked as duplicate by tchrist, Peter Shor , Drew, choster, Edwin Ashworth Mar 13 '15 at 18:09

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Often even big dictionaries forget to clarify problems of verb construction. "to write" is a good example. I checked Longman DCE, book form, and Oxford COD, book form. Neither dictionary covers the problem. Nor do Collins and Macmillian, online.

Only OALD has clear information as to verb construction. In "to write" no. 3, OALD has

1 to write to someone

2 to write someone something

3 to write something (to someone)

and

4 to write someone - AmE

http://www.oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/definition/english/write?q=write

  • If I understand correctly, my sentence makes sense and is grammatically correct. Thank you very much. – Clayton Geist Mar 16 '15 at 17:03

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