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The employees are expected to plan their expenditure and avail loans prudently and responsibly.

Is this sentence correct? Is it necessary to use of after avail in this sentence? Please give the reason if so. Thank You.

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    I think this usage is defined by OED as: 4. reflexive. To benefit or advantage oneself. Obsolete. - regardless of whether it's expressed using themselves [of loans] or not. – FumbleFingers Feb 19 '15 at 20:27
  • What is OED? I cannot clearly understand what you said. Can you explain in simple words? Thanks – Anupam Feb 19 '15 at 20:43
  • Idiomatically your sentence should read: ...plan their expenditure and avail themselves of loans prudently and responsibly. – WS2 Feb 19 '15 at 20:44
  • Yes that's what i thought too with proper format to use avail. But then i thought is it necessary to use 'themselves of' after it which the sentence is already indicating indirectly. Am i right? – Anupam Feb 19 '15 at 20:46
  • Even though it's implied, it's always included in the idiom. – Barmar Feb 19 '15 at 20:59
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The employees are expected to plan their expenditure and avail themselves of loans prudently and responsibly.

The entity that benefits from the availing is always in the object position. ("The plan availed the employees little," "The employees availed themselves of their boss's absence.")

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"Avail" in this case is a transitive verb, it is required that the first and successive statements align to the last statement after its use. In that there is motion within the sentence it is required then that the preposition "to" be included. In other words it should be written as, "The employees are expected to plan their expenditure and to avail loans prudently and responsibly." This makes its point clearly when you consider "...to plan..." then it should read, "... to avail ...".

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