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How do you use the word 'abode' when you are talking about someone's home, not the past tense of 'abide'.

Is this sentence grammatically correct?

"Everyone remains in their abode."

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    Grammatically, yes. There’s nothing ungrammatical about it. It sounds odd, though. Abode is an old-fashioned word that’s quite formal and sometimes used jocularly exactly because it’s so formal. It’s mostly found in the phrase my humble abode, meaning ‘my home’. Feb 11, 2015 at 17:59

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Yes, in the sense of a dwelling-place or simply a place of ordinary habitation.

Example

  • place of abode- everyone remains in their abode (or dwells in their abode)
  • right of abode -appeal by the citizens of Hong Kong for Britain to grant them an automatic right to settle in Britain
  • to take up one's abode-I am going to take up my abode in a different city.

Wiki- In law, no fixed abode or without fixed abode is not having a fixed geographical location as a residence. This is applicable to several groups:

  • People who have a home, but which is not always in the same place:
  • People considered to be homeless. The term "of no fixed abode" or "no fixed address" is frequently used as a description by the police and a euphemism by the media for somebody who is without a home.

Also, the act of abiding; a sojourn.

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I don't think the sentence is "perfectly fine". One should know a bit about the style level of the word. To abide and the noun abode are old words, they don't belong to normal everyday language. You can find abode in novels and one could label the word as literary or elevated style. Conan Doyle or Sherlock Homes might use the word.

There are niches where the word is still used: a person without fixed abode is law language as well as law of abode. The word is sometimes also used humorously "my humble abode", but even that is elevated style.

So the word has special connotations and I wouldn't use it as a simple variant for home. http://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/abode_1

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  • How does that make the phrase ungrammatical?
    – Jordan
    Feb 11, 2015 at 20:37
  • Thanks for the advice, but I will decide for myself what to say.
    – WS2
    Feb 11, 2015 at 22:23
  • @Jordan Dolan OP also asks this question: "How do you use the word 'abode' when you are talking about someone's home?" The question about grammaticality is too elementary for ELU (which is doubtless why Janus addressed it using a 'comment'). As one contributor here famously once said, "It's grammatical, but that's about the only good thing you can say about it". 'Abode' is a lovely word. But if you say 'Let's go to Jim's abode', he probably won't invite you. Wrong register. Wrong impression. Feb 12, 2015 at 13:02
  • @JordanDolan - If someone asks "How do you use the word abode" one should not give the answer "it's perfectly fine" without a remark about the special language register of the word abode. I didn't talk of grammar, I talked about the language register. And in this respect, I'm in agreement with Janus and Ashworth.
    – rogermue
    Feb 12, 2015 at 18:00
  • @rogermue - I can see where you are coming from. It might be misleading to use the phrase 'perfectly fine'. However, my answer was incomplete as opposed to incorrect. I took "Is this sentence grammatically correct?" as being the primary question here. To that question, the answer is yes. I, possibly incorrectly, felt that the question 'How do you use the word' was more of a clumsy precursor than an actual question to be directly answered. However, in retrospect, I can see that my answer was probably not useful or misleading for the reasons you have given.
    – Jordan
    Feb 12, 2015 at 18:10
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Your example is perfectly fine. Abode simply means -"Place of Residence".

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  • And of course it's perfectly fine to use aught we find defined in a dictionary. Feb 11, 2015 at 19:22

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