1

None of them are/is

I don't know if this is the place to ask, but:

In German you would say "none of them is" and it totally sounds wrong to me to say "none of them are". As German and English are both Germanic languages, I can't explain how they have a different concept of none, especially because in French and Italian it's singular as well.

Does anyone know how/why this turned out this way?

Edit:
Before this gets put on hold ;-) I have read a lot of threads about none, my question is: how did it become this way? I haven't seen any other threads on that.

marked as duplicate by Erik Kowal, Edwin Ashworth, Chenmunka, mplungjan, choster Dec 22 '14 at 15:34

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