This question already has an answer here:
None of them are/is
I don't know if this is the place to ask, but:
In German you would say "none of them is" and it totally sounds wrong to me to say "none of them are". As German and English are both Germanic languages, I can't explain how they have a different concept of none, especially because in French and Italian it's singular as well.
Does anyone know how/why this turned out this way?
Before this gets put on hold ;-) I have read a lot of threads about none, my question is: how did it become this way? I haven't seen any other threads on that.