6

As a native English speaker, I find the phrase "The hammer need not to be large for..." sounds strange to my ears. Instead, I prefer "The hammer need not be large for...". But what is the rule that makes the former grammatically wrong? Or, maybe I am in error, and indeed the former is technically correct...

Improve this question
2
  • 3
    That's because need is a Semi-Modal auxiliary verb, like dare, and acts like a modal auxiliary (i.e, no to on infinitive complements) in negative environments. Notice that The hammer needs to be large is grammatical, but not *The hammer need be large; that's the way it behaves normally, without a negative around.
    – John Lawler
    Commented Dec 3, 2014 at 19:14
  • 2
    @John: I wouldn't object to The hammer need be large in a literary or poetic context. I would prefer must, though.
    – Kevin
    Commented Dec 3, 2014 at 19:30

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
0

The verb "need" can function as a linking verb or an action verb. As a linking verb, you can say "need + do" just like you say "can + do" but when it functions as an action verb, an infinite will have to follow "need". That is when you say "need to do something".

Improve this answer

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .