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I stated the following:

Angela was reading to Frank and I.

Someone corrected me, stating

"Frank and me"

Which is right?

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This is an example of hypercorrection. "To Frank and me" is correct, which is obvious when you remove "Frank":

  • "Angela was reading to me" - This is correct
  • "Angela was reading to I" - No-one would ever say this.

The problem is that a lot of native English speakers say "me" when they should say "I" in the subject of the sentence:

  • "Frank and I were reading to Angela" - This is correct
  • "Me and Frank were reading to Angela" - This is very common, especially among younger people, but considered by many to be "incorrect".

So people are so used to being told that "me and Frank" is wrong, that they correct it to "Frank and I" even when "Frank and me" is actually correct

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    Many learned people would take issue with your assertion that "Me and Frank were ..." is technically incorrect. I suggest that you change it to incorrect according to the prescriptions of Formal English. In most dialects of English, it is normal and correct to change "I" to "me" when it is separated from the verb / auxiliary. Formal English sidesteps this matter insisting that you put the "I" last. (And I bet you thought you had to put the "I" last to be polite...)
    – Pitarou
    Oct 9, 2014 at 3:38
  • Hey, I say sentences like "me and Frank were..." all the time, I was just pointing out that many people insist it's incorrect (personally, I'd argue that the English language has evolved to the point where both forms are now correct, but it's still a point of contention among many people.)
    – GMA
    Oct 9, 2014 at 3:50
  • I've never heard that putting the "I" last in "Frank and I" is done to be polite, it just sounds much more natural than me. "Frank and I were reading" sounds okay, I don't think I've ever heard anyone say "I and Frank were reading."
    – GMA
    Oct 9, 2014 at 3:52
  • @Pitarou: While I agree with you in principle, I would have thought that anyone asking this forum for a ruling is trying to find the position of prescriptive grammar on the matter of their question in the first place, making such a disclaimer somewhat superfluous. Actually, unless you are talking about prescriptive grammar, "correct" is a meaningless label - a descriptive grammarian would use "attested" instead.
    – Amadan
    Oct 9, 2014 at 8:44
  • Yeah, you're right, and we're digressing from the original question. I was just pointing out that a lot of native English speakers (such as my grandma) would consider "me and Frank were..." to be 'wrong', and would correct you ("don't you mean 'Frank and I'?") if they heard you say it. I've edited my answer to make this less contentious.
    – GMA
    Oct 9, 2014 at 8:58

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