I had an internet argument about grammar (unwise, I know) on a headline that read:
The Food Gap Is Widening - Wealthy people are eating better than ever, while the poor are eating worse.
I argued that the sentence meant:
Wealthy people are eating better than ever, while the poor are eating worse [than ever].
He argued that it wasn't a sentence, and that the headline read:
Wealthy people are eating better than ever, while the poor are eating worse [than before now].
Edit: to clarify, "than before now" to him meant "in the last 10 years or so", which was the time period covered in the article, as opposed to "than ever before". This was in response to a third party pointing out that the poor [in the US] probably do not eat worse than ever before, as a lot more people used to starve to death than they do now. /Edit
I still think I am correct, but I had a hard time finding any resources on the topic. It was even hard to find what I was looking for. This is a form of Zeugma?
Is there anything I can look up that would be more definitive on the topic?