I work (in the UK) with someone who habitually leaves the "been" out of the present perfect (or so it seems to me), using phrases like "Has an appointment created?" or "If an appointment has created..." rather than "Has an appointment been created?" or "If an appointment has been created..." She does this both in speech and in writing. Is this "correct" English in a way that I'm unfamiliar with? (Allowing for the fact that "correct" vs. "incorrect" are tricky concepts for English language use.)
I'm reasonably certain she's a native English speaker born and raised in the UK. She may have another native language as well, she'd probably tick the "British Asian"* box on the census and speaks of visiting family in India, but while her parents or grandparents may have been immigrants, I very much doubt she is. Other than this quirk, her speech is solidly and fluently British English, not Indian English. She doesn't, for instance, use "doubt" where I would expect "question."
I don't recall hearing anyone else do this habitually — in British English, American English (what I mostly speak, having spent 2/3rds of my life there), or Indian English.
I understand that the concept of "correct English" is a fallacy. Leaving that aside, is this a recognized form I'm simply unfamiliar with? Or a quirk of British English or Indian English I've somehow managed to miss when others do it? Or just a quirk of her own?
* (Americans: In this context, the "Asia" in "Asian" refers to India, Pakistan, and environs, not south-east Asia as it would there.)