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This question already has an answer here:

Is there a difference between using "it seems" and "it seems that"

For example:

"It seems that automatic restart is not happening now"

"It seems automatic restart is not happening now"

Which one is correct? Or are they both?

marked as duplicate by FumbleFingers, tchrist, user66974, phenry, Robusto Jul 27 '14 at 23:47

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

  • Tensed that-complements like (that) automatic restart is not happening now can delete the optional "(that) unless the complement clause begins the sentence, in which case the that is required: That you left early is unfortunate but *You left early is unfortunate. – John Lawler Jul 27 '14 at 17:34
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Take a look at this very similar question here on EL&U. Quoting the relevant answer from here-

In terms of meaning, there is no difference between these sentences:

It seems that they have not completed the task yet.

It seems they haven't completed the task yet.

The word that is not necessary to be there when it is used as a conjunction to introduce a subordinate clause expressing a statement or hypothesis.

  • It's not necessary (though it's almost always possible) for any complement clause (no matter what it expresses), except when the complement clause comes at the beginning of the sentence. (BTW, the clause "The word that is not necessary to be there" is ungrammatical, since necessary does not allow A-Raising.) – John Lawler Jul 27 '14 at 17:58
  • Yes, I believe that condition(complement clause beginning at the sentence) has been mentioned in one of the comments below the original question, so I didn't point it out(again). And, as for your second observation, yes- you're right. The grammatical construction isn't correct, but, then again, those aren't my words. I'm merely quoting from the answer given in the possible duplicate question. – Manish Giri Jul 27 '14 at 18:02
  • Which is why I distrust previous answers that get linked to by supposedly "duplicate" questions. They often contain incorrect information, and they often disagree. – John Lawler Jul 27 '14 at 18:33
  • @JohnLawler It's not entirely true that the complementizer that can be omitted "for any complement clause". It is strongly preferred if verb and complement are not adjacent: ? I realized with sadness in my heart [ _ he had done it]. It is almost categorically required if there is fronting in the complement clause: ??? I think [_ on him, no coat looks good]. It is obligatory if the complement clause is fronted: * [ _ Mary cheated on Bill] upset him. (Here, _ is a position for that.) – Richard Z Dec 11 '18 at 22:23
  • Deletions of grammatical particles like complementizers are normal when they're predictable, under prototype circumstances. In situations far from the prototype, like separation and fronting, optional deletions of any kind are fraught with ambiguities. At least. – John Lawler Dec 11 '18 at 23:20

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