Consider two words, for example,
The phonetic symbol of
l in the two words are the same, which makes me wonder why the sound of
l in the first is considered to be the same as in the second one (or not?).
To me, the
lot requires "active" motion of the tongue, while the
all only requires a slight motion of the mouth, and a slightly prolonged sound, and does not require the tongue to move. Sometimes I even think that the pronunciation of
all is nothing but "o-ow".
My question is: 1. Should the two
ls be considered to have the same sound? 2. If so, why? To be concrete, do you (or is it wrong if not) move your tongue while pronouncing "all"?
In fact, the pronunciation of the letter L in the alphabet should be "el", but many people (non-native speaker) pronounce it as "e-low", seemingly to "solidify" the unsubstantial sound of
l. I am no better than them since I pronounce it as "e-ow".