Consider two words, for example, lot
and all
.
The phonetic symbol of l
in the two words are the same, which makes me wonder why the sound of l
in the first is considered to be the same as in the second one (or not?).
To me, the l
in lot
requires "active" motion of the tongue, while the l
in all
only requires a slight motion of the mouth, and a slightly prolonged sound, and does not require the tongue to move. Sometimes I even think that the pronunciation of all
is nothing but "o-ow".
My question is: 1. Should the two l
s be considered to have the same sound? 2. If so, why? To be concrete, do you (or is it wrong if not) move your tongue while pronouncing "all"?
In fact, the pronunciation of the letter L in the alphabet should be "el", but many people (non-native speaker) pronounce it as "e-low", seemingly to "solidify" the unsubstantial sound of l
. I am no better than them since I pronounce it as "e-ow".
l
in each sounds the same to me. If you pronounce a lot do you hear a difference in thel
from either of lot and all. If so, which one?