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Would someone please explain its meaning? Also, what's the antecedent of 'which'?

In his Commentaries on the Laws of England, William Blackstone contended that the distinction between private wrongs and crimes was:

... As if I detain a field from another man, to which the law has given him a right, this is a civil injury, and not a crime; for here only the right of an individual is concerned, and it is immaterial to the public, which of us is in possession of the land: but treason, murder and robbery are properly marked among crimes; since besides the injury done to individuals, they strike at the very being of society; which cannot possibly subsist, where actions of this sort are suffered to escape with impunity.

Source: P138-139, How the Law Works, Gary Slapper

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    who among us (which people in the group we refer to as "us") is in possession of the land.
    – Jim
    Jul 11 '14 at 5:26
  • He has given an example so as to distinguish between a crime and what you personally deem is wrong. In this case, violating a person's land possession rights. Here 'which of us' is used for either the person to whom the law gave the right to the land or the person who is detaining that land from him(the speaker in this case.). Jul 11 '14 at 5:28
  • If this were written today, the comma before which would almost certainly not be there.
    – user28567
    Aug 19 '14 at 17:57
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He has given an example so as to distinguish between a crime and what you personally deem is wrong. In this case, violating a person's land possession rights. Here 'which of us' is used for either the person to whom the law gave the right to the land or the person who is detaining that land from him(the speaker in this case).

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