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This question already has an answer here:

In the below sentences, do is not present.

My doctor insists that I (do) not eat donuts with chocolate sauce and hamburger patties for breakfast.

It's imperative you (do) not sing when your voice hurts.

Why is the do not present in the sentences? Which grammatical rule would be violated if do is included in the sentences?

marked as duplicate by tchrist, aedia λ, FumbleFingers, user66974, anongoodnurse Jun 30 '14 at 21:41

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  • I don't think this is a duplicate. While both questions are about the subjunctive, the other question does not address negation. – phenry Jun 30 '14 at 19:00
  • @phenry Why do think negation matters? – tchrist Jun 30 '14 at 19:07
  • Because the leap from understanding the role of uninflected verbs in the subjunctive to knowing when to drop "do" is a non-intuitive one. – phenry Jun 30 '14 at 19:15
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This missing words are implied:

"It's imperative {that} you {do} not sing when your voice hurts."

This can further be simplified into a command:

"Do not sing when your voice hurts."

  • That’s not really what’s happening here. He just doesn’t understand the subjunctive. – tchrist Jun 30 '14 at 15:14

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