Is "not having...full time" partial negation or complete negation?

Question

I got a bit confused by this sentence: "I’ve got used to not having a man around full time." I am not sure if it is partial negation or complete negation. Does this mean:

1. I've got used to occasionally having a man around, or;

2. I've got used to not having a man around at all?

Thanks. Here is the context:

I’m a bit afraid of us being together all the time; he is full of vigour and I’m a tired middle-aged woman. And besides I’ve got used to not having a man around full time.

Answer 1

I agree with your first interpretation.

I’m a bit afraid of us being together all the time...And besides I’ve got used to not having a man around full time.

Not being around full time doesn't imply not being around at all; it simply means not being present at all times. Though a man is not always there, a man is there at certain times. Thus, a man is there occasionally. In this case, the man = he.

Note that if you remove the elements in question, there is a clear implication of absence:

I'm a bit afraid of us being together. And besides, I've gotten used to not having a man around [at all].

This is not the case, however. The addition of the elements lends credence to the notion that he is neither fully present nor fully absent, but instead occasionally there.

Answer 2

I think that the main meaning that the sentence wants to convey can be understood from the expression full time. She is saying that she is no longer used to having a man always with her and that implies that she may like to a man for a shorter time. Form the sentence you attached I understand that the woman in question no longer desires a fully-committed relationship, but probably an occasional one.