If I want to abbreviate the sentence "Please fetch me the book; I think Jean has got it.", I can write "Jean's got it."

But what if it's Carlos who has it?

Assuming you prefer the style of possessives where you'd write Carlos' instead of Carlos's, is it ok to write Carlos' to mean "Carlos has" in addition to "of Carlos"?


If you were saying "Carlos has got it", it would be likely to be contracted to "Carlos 'as got it", perhaps even shortening the 'as to almost a schwa.

What you wouldn't say is "Carlos got it".

Thus what you write is what you say: Carlos's got it.

This isn't a possessive, which has its own rules and customs, as you point out. It's a straightforward contraction of has.

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