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Question about language grammar etymology. In French the question «Do you love?» can be written as «Aimez-vous?» in German — «Mögen Sie?», but in English — «Do you love?». Why should we use the verb «to do» in order to form the question? Why, according to the English grammar, it is not possible to build the question only with words inversion, e.g. «Love you?» like in French or German?
In other words, why English which has quite a common Latin/Roman base with French and German has such different question building form.