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So i watched this scene in the show called 'the vampire diaries' and heard one of the main characters say this line: 'And I would've gladly have given it to you...' Is that correct? Do people actually say that? I'm bit confused because I've always been good at understanding would+have. Don't really think I misheard.

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It is certainly not correct. Either you did mishear it or the person that spoke or wrote the line mixed up these two possible correct versions:

And I would've gladly given it to you.
And I would gladly have given it to you.

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  • I rewatched and no, he actually says it. But thank you! I was about 90% sure it was a grammar mistake and you've just confirmed that. – user73435 Apr 28 '14 at 11:40
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The only way he could have used have after using would've is as below:

And I would've gladly have it given to you...

I am not sure about the movie's scenario, but if he was going to give it through someone but not himself, then the sentence in the script could have been as above. But either way he delivered the dialogue wrong. Non native actor probably. :)

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'I would've gladly have given it to you...' It is really not correct. you would have misheard.

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