Shakespeare is also responsible for the modern meaning of "odd".
Obviously, you have read the sentence at variance from what the author meant.
If the bard were the first to use the word in that sense, then why also? Moreover, what is the awkward "responsible" doing there when one would expect a direct attribution?
The author seems to imply that had Shakespeare not described the Spaniard Don Adriano de Armado as "too picked, too spruce, too affected, too odd, as it were" in Love's Labour's Lost, the Modern sense of the word would not have caught on. "Originally, the word only had a numerical sense. It was used in phrases such as 'odd man out', the unpaired member of a group of three."
Expressions and their meanings just get wider acceptance when used in widely-read and respected writings.