There are 2 citations related to the question.
Bankruptcy of a corporation does not in itself cause dissolution.
A partnership may be dissolved by agreement of the parties.
I reckon, in the first sentence, "bankruptcy" needs an article before itself to make sense because it is also okay; but why, here, the writer did not use it? because of nuance? or because it is academic?
The same with the second sentence: why not "the agreement of the parties," but "agreement of the parties?"
The two sentences are from the same book, an introductory book of law.
Thanks for any help!