Being in a country where Spanish is spoken natively, when folks speak English, I often hear them using phrases of the form "for [infinitive]" (e.g., "for to ask").
It strikes me – somewhat hesitatingly – as ungrammatical and as being rooted in a literal translation of the "para [infinitive]" form in Spanish.
But at the same time, the form has a certain familiarity to it in English. (Perhaps this is simply because I've heard this mistake so often that I'm starting to habituate to it.)
To indicate purpose in this manner, the more common forms in English would be either infinitive ("to ask"), or for + gerund ("for asking"). For those folks who are learning English and are interested in feedback, I would generally guide them away from using "for [infinitive]" and towards these two forms.
And yet I've occasionally seen the "for [infinitive]" form used by folks who seem quite competent in their English (just noticed it here, which prompted me to ask the question).
Thus this question is for to ask: is such usage grammatical or not?