1) "By the time you arrive, I'll already be gone "

2 ) "By the time you arrive, I'll already have gone "

I think both are grammatically correct but Are there any differences in meaning? And which one sounds better(more natural)?

  • 1
    The same phenomenon appears in he is risen/has risen and I am fallen/have fallen, am become/have become, etc. The only difference is that Old English formed the present perfect of intransitive verbs with to be, whereas Modern English does so with to have. Modern English, however, still has several Old English stragglers. The only real difference is that one is the old form and the other the new. – Anonym Mar 10 '14 at 19:05

The first emphasises the absence, the second, the departure.

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The verb 'go' is an intransitive verb. So grammatically it is wrong. In OE, it was used, but it is grammatically wrong. The second one is much better and grammatically right.

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