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Is it right to say

" Fisher (1935) has showed that normality is guaranteed in case 1"

Or should it be

" Fisher (1935) has shown that normality is guaranteed in case 1" ?

Personally, I guess both are not wrong. But then, the first one is wrong according to many. Please help !!

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  • I would always use 'shown'.
    – WS2
    Commented Mar 6, 2014 at 9:56
  • I wonder what Fisher would have considered normal! At least OP doesn't throw in shewed and shewn.
    – Edwin Ashworth
    Commented Mar 6, 2014 at 11:43

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The OALD says that showed is rare as a past participle.

So it will look very strange to many people, who are likely to insist that "showed" is showed is just the past tense of show.

So, while "has showed" is not wrong, at least according to some sources, the fact that some other sources do not include showed as past participle and some others label it as rare should explain why many will find it wrong.

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  • Or to put it differently: has showed is wrong to the vast majority of people, but there are a small minority of speakers who would not consider it wrong. [Disclaimer: I do not know if it is commonly used in something like Indian English, for example, which would significantly skew the numbers. I’m basing my majority/minority on BrE, AmE, IrE, ScE, AuE, and NZE alone.)
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Commented Mar 6, 2014 at 10:04

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