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A number of armorials of other countries have sections devoted to Spanish arms, especially those French armorials arranged by marches; Aragonese arms are prominent, not surprisingly in view of the cultural and political links that existed between Aragón and southern France. (Collins, W. T., Spanish Armorials, Coat of Arms, No. 161, Spring 1993.)

I am understanding the paragraph in this way:

A number of armorials of other countries have sections devoted to Spanish arms, especially [in] those [of] French armorials arranged by marches [,] Aragonese arms are prominent [;] not surprisingly in view of the cultural and political links that existed between Aragón and southern France.

Is my percept from the context correct ever? If it is correct, why "in" and "of" are deleted?

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I think you are mis-parsing what the author says.

  1. Many non-Spanish armorials have sections devoted to Spanish arms.
  2. Among non-Spanish armorials, French armorials arranged by marches are particularly likely to have sections devoted to Spanish arms.
  3. In non-Spanish armorials, Aragonese arms are prominent.
  4. This prominence is not surprising, since Aragon had close cultural and political links with southern France.

There is, admittedly, a missing link in the argument for #4, which as it stands suggests what you have taken the author to mean: that the Aragonese arms are prominent specifically in French armorials arranged by marches, not in all non-Spanish armorials.

But the author does not say that.

It may well be that experts in the field take it for granted that other non-Spanish armorials would follow French armorials in featuring Aragonese arms—if, for instance, sections of German or English or Italian armorials dealing with Spain routinely took their information from French armorials, because the French armorials were more accessible or more ‘authoritative’, or because French armorials treated the arms of their close neighbour Spain more fully than anyone else.

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