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In Breaking Bad TV series, there's a conversation between Jesse Pinkman and Saul Goodman:

Jesse: You want a job?

Saul: A job?

Saul: Who's got a job for me?

Jesse: I do.

I'd like to know why he says "I do" in respond to "who has got ...?" and why not "I have"?

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Because the verb phrase "HAS GOT" (a more informal and, in my opinion, redundant way of saying "HAS") was already mentioned by Saul in "Who'S GOT a job for me?". In English, we respond to a question like this by substituting the verb or verb phrase used with "DO/DOES".

Remember that "has got" here is present simple and not present perfect (don't let the word "has" confuse you). In an interrogative sentence in the present perfect tense, such as:

"Who's cleaned the kitchen?"

The answer will be "I have" and not "I do".

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