In Breaking Bad TV series, there's a conversation between Jesse Pinkman and Saul Goodman:

Jesse: You want a job?

Saul: A job?

Saul: Who's got a job for me?

Jesse: I do.

I'd like to know why he says "I do" in respond to "who has got ...?" and why not "I have"?


Because the verb phrase "HAS GOT" (a more informal and, in my opinion, redundant way of saying "HAS") was already mentioned by Saul in "Who'S GOT a job for me?". In English, we respond to a question like this by substituting the verb or verb phrase used with "DO/DOES".

Remember that "has got" here is present simple and not present perfect (don't let the word "has" confuse you). In an interrogative sentence in the present perfect tense, such as:

"Who's cleaned the kitchen?"

The answer will be "I have" and not "I do".

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