Because Middle English was a hodgepodge mélange of Old English (a Germanic tongue) and Norman French (a Romance language), it seems like Middle English was actually a kind of pidgin or creole.
My question is:
Was it such, and if so, which one was it: a creole or pidgin? If so, when did it stop being such — or didn’t it stop being such?
Related musings of my own that I don’t expect answers for follow.
I do wonder whether in today’s world of English becoming the lingua anglica of common communication as French gave rise to the lingua franca of yesteryear, such a creolization might not be recurring, at least in certain places with a dominant alternate language, such as in India or Singapore.
I’ve found several articles on the notion, but they are unclear about what is happening today with World English and how that relates to what happened after 1066.
Perhaps the English of tomorrow will look as much like today’s English as Chaucer looked like Beowulf.