I've just started reading the English translation of Crime And Punishment, and come across the following sentences where the usage of past perfect tense has confused me:
He was so badly dressed that even a man accustomed to shabbiness would have been ashamed to be seen in the street in such rags. In that quarter of the town, however, scarcely any shortcoming in dress would have created surprise. Owing to the proximity of the Hay Market, the number of establishment of bad character, the preponderance of trading and working class population crowded in these streets and alleys in the heart of Petersburg, types so various were to be seen in the streets that no figure, however queer, would have caused surprise.
The use of past perfect appears in each of the three sentences. In all of them, for me, "would" instead of "would have" seems to be clearer. "Would have" leads me to read them through a subjunctive or a speculative mood, which I don't see them should imply, according to the scene being described. Or they do imply something that I've missed? Could you guys share your opinions. Thanks.