2

The two works are similar and it is not just because they are both from franchises (that are) notorious for (their) poorly-written characters.

Is it acceptable to omit the "that are" in the above sentence, and if so, what is doing so called?

Similarly, is it acceptable to omit the "their", and if so, what is doing so called?

My gut tells me yes to both, because it "sounds fine." However, why then does omitting those words sound so wrong in the following examples?

The two works are similar and it is not just because they are both from franchises (that are) notorious.

The two franchises are notorious for (their) badness.

  • Reagrdless of the answer, you should certainly omit it is. I would call it a comma splice but that you have left out the comma after similar. – TimLymington Dec 3 '13 at 18:08
4

The two works are similar and it is not just because they are both from franchises (that are) notorious for (their) poorly-written characters.

It is perfectly acceptable to omit the "that are" and "their" in your first sentence, as they are attached to relative clauses, and match the case when their omission is optional.


The two works are similar and it is not just because they are both from franchises (that are) notorious.

The use of "notorious" as a postpositive adjective in this case does indeed sound unnatural.


The two franchises are notorious for (their) badness.

It is perfectly fine to omit the "their" in the second sentence, depending on the importance of specificity of the "badness."

  • Not sure if I should ask another question... But say in the case "We show (that) the rejection rate was lower than expected." Is still OK to omit the "that" ? More generally, when can we not omit the "that"? – Monteiro Lobato Jun 30 '14 at 15:46
  • that relative clauses link just gave me the answer to a question I was about to post. Thanks! – Some_Guy Sep 3 '15 at 8:14
  • @Some_Guy, great! – yurrriq Sep 10 '15 at 2:31

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