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Hello I was concerned about this.

Is this a correct proper formal English?

There shouldn't be any issue, should it?

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    Assuming the first and last lines are irrelevant, which of the middle two is your actual question, and which is the sentence you want to check for grammaticality? FWIW neither of them is correct English, but if you want a useful answer you'll have to explain exactly what aspect of the phrasing you're interested in. Nov 22 '13 at 18:01
  • Our sister site for English Language Learners may be of interest.
    – choster
    Nov 22 '13 at 20:33
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It should read: 'There shouldn't be any issue, should there?'

Unlike in French which can use the uniform n'est-ce pas'on any sentence, English forms its closing interrogative endings, both positives and negatives, precisely as the sentence is worded. For example:

'He did go, didn't he'? 'They ought to know better, oughtn't they'? 'I wouldn't do such a thing, would I'? etc.

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I think that sentence is two clauses and should be punctuated as such. Also, using "any" followed by a singular noun can be grammatically correct sometimes, but it generally sounds better to not use it in most cases. I believe it has something to do with whether or not the noun is countable. "Issue" is a gray area because it might or might not be countable. Certainly, some meanings of "issue" (e.g. issue of a newspaper) are always countable.

There shouldn't be an issue. Should there?

There shouldn't be any issues. Should there?

There shouldn't be an issue - should there?

There shouldn't be an issue; should there?

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