1

This question already has an answer here:

He is one of the men who do the work.

Could someone explain why it is "do" and not "does" up there? I'm sure this question has been asked before and I've memorized what to do with such sentences. But still I'm confused as to the reason why "do" is correct.

Is the subject up there "men" and not "he"? Why isn't it possible to make "he" the subject?

marked as duplicate by Mari-Lou A, Misti, Nicole, Centaurus, Drew Feb 19 '15 at 3:25

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

0

Because the subject of 'do' in this sentence is 'men'.

Think of it in this way:

Which people do the work? The men do the work.
He is just one of those men.

Now, joining them:

"He is one of the men who do the work."

Also, it may be possible to make 'him' the subject, but we'd have to change the sentence.

  • I agree. I suppose one could say 'He, among other mean, does the work', but even then some might argue for 'do'. – WS2 Nov 6 '13 at 14:54
  • Add 'the' to make: "He is the one of the men who does the work." Now 'one' is no longer part of the men, but singled out to become the antecedent of the verb. – shipr Nov 6 '13 at 21:01
  • @WS2 In your construction, do would be ungrammatical, though, wouldn't it? It's the same as "He does the work", with an additional part inserted, just to add information. – mikhailcazi Nov 8 '13 at 10:48
  • @mikhailcazi Yes, you are right, it should be 'does'; it cannot be 'do'. The commas separating the subordinate clause, 'among other men', make that clear. – WS2 Nov 8 '13 at 11:09
  • @shipr That does make sense, but sounds very odd. Also, it doesn't convey the same meaning as the original sentence. :) Perhaps it's more natural to say, "Of the men, he is the one who does the work." – mikhailcazi Nov 8 '13 at 11:30

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.