Is there a difference between
I didn't use to do that
and
I used to not to do that
For example,
I don't use to read books when I was a child.
Would both be correct? Is the second even correct grammatically?
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The idiom used to, always pronounced /'yustə/, can either be a verb in the past tense, followed by an infinitive, and presupposing that the present tense is false (I used to live on DeKalb Avenue); or preceded by a form of be, it means 'accustomed to; adapted to', as in I'm used to living on DeKalb Avenue now.– John LawlerCommented Oct 4, 2013 at 4:41
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I didn't used to read books, but now I do.– JimCommented Oct 4, 2013 at 5:00
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1"I used to do a lot of drugs. I still do, but I used to, too." - Mitch Hedberg (re presupposition)– hunter2Commented Oct 4, 2013 at 6:20
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2 Answers
According to Michael Swan's "Practical English Usage", the negative forms of used to are:
formal: used not to
informal: didn't use to, didn't used to
Example:
I didn't use(d) to read books when I was a child. (informal)
I used not to read books when I was a child. (formal)
So, the difference would be mostly that of register.
answered Oct 4, 2013 at 8:00
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I've never heard a native English speaker says I used not to do that or I used not to read books. How would it be pronounced, for starts? /ayustnat/ or /ayuzdnat/? Does Swan cover the pronunciation? If not, it's useless pedantry. Commented Oct 4, 2013 at 16:15
The first example suggests your habit, whereas your second example is not grammatically correct. Instead it should be "I used to not do that".
