2

A: do you have any questions? B: None so far.

Is "none so far" a strange English and was it correct to use it in the dialogue above?.I was told by a native speaker that it is strange to use it this way in the dialogue.

  • 4
    No, it's perfectly normal, at least for this native speaker. – Andrew Leach Sep 2 '13 at 10:48
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    Me too. It's a very ordinary conversational example of reduction under repetition of the response I have no questions so far, which is completely ordinary and grammatical. I have is understood from the question, none is substituted for no questions, again from the question, and so far is already an idiom. It could also be Not so far, from a different normal response. – John Lawler Sep 2 '13 at 13:40
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    Also visit ell.stackexchange.com and read the Q&A so far -- you may find that useful and informative. – Kris Sep 4 '13 at 10:07
4

Yes, it's perfectly normal. Granted, it's succinct and to the point, which is fine. Made longer, though not necessarily better, it means

"I have not one question so far."

Other options include

  • "I have no questions thus far."

  • "Questions? No, none so far."

  • "I have none--yet."

  • "At this point, I have no questions."

  • "Not yet."

  • (in Yoda-speak): "Of questions, I have none."

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