I know what is the meaning of "I can't agree with you more", but what about "I can't agree with you enough"? What does it mean? Does it mean that I agree with you, or I don't?

3 Answers 3


Firstly, to answer your question, both phrases are used to convey essentially the same meaning, as they are different approaches to conveying the highest level of agreement.

"I can't agree with you more" means that one's sentiment of agreement is as high as it can go.

"I can't agree with you enough" means that verbal expressions of agreement are insufficient to convey one's sentiment of agreement.

I do not agree with Charlie Brown though, that one is "more proper" than the other. I would speculate that "more" is more widely used in US English, and "enough" in UK English, in a similar way to the US "I could care less" and the UK "I couldn't care less".

  • +1 for agreeing that neither is "more proper".
    – TrevorD
    Jul 29, 2013 at 12:05
  • 1
    Note, however, that I couldn't agree with you more can be used to mean that the speaker cannot muster any agreement at all. Overnegation, with or without intended emphasis or irony, is a very common feature of any combination of negation with equative, comparative, or superlative constructions. Jul 29, 2013 at 16:55
  • @Phil spot-on in your assessment as I am from the states & not the UK. Interesting because I usually feel the UK English sounds 'more' proper for lack of a better term. Jul 30, 2013 at 3:36

"I can't agree with you enough", to me, can mean, that no matter how I support you, you find fault with my position as not being extreme enough.

  • 2
    Depends on context.
    – Hot Licks
    Jun 10, 2020 at 2:39
  • Hmm .. yes, depends on context. I imagine an argument between two people, and one complains, "I can't agree with you enough" Jun 10, 2020 at 2:58

"I couldn't agree with you more" and "I can't agree with you enough" are two different ways of saying what is intended to be the same meaning. For instance, Person A makes a statement to which Person B replies by using either expression to convey that they feel the exact same way about Person A's statement. Both expressions are in a sense an exaggeration to drive home the fact they are in complete agreement with what the person's thought or feeling.

  • -1 for stating that one option is "more proper", esp. with no justification or explanation.
    – TrevorD
    Jul 29, 2013 at 12:05
  • @TrevorD I appreciate your critique. You were too kind in not voting me down for my unsupported claim which Phil pointed out pretty well. I probably deserved a down vote. The fact that you made no mention of the poor grammar used in my hastily written second sentence was either an oversight on your part or you were feeling quite generous;-) I hope my edit clarified & corrected my answer. Superlative was the word that eluded me at 2 a.m. Kudos to John Lawler. Jul 30, 2013 at 3:55

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