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For example why can't we use Endia or Ingland. Any specific reason?

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    I do not pronounce India (ɪndiə/) and England (ˈɪŋɡlənd/) the same... You would likely enjoy ell.stackexchange.com
    – mplungjan
    May 22, 2013 at 8:27
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    This question begins with a false premise and boils down to a question of spelling, for which there are no good answers. I'm sorry, but it just doesn't fit here.
    – Kit Z. Fox
    May 22, 2013 at 11:15
  • In which language variation, dialect or accent do they sound the same?
    – TrevorD
    May 22, 2013 at 12:32

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Endia would sound "en-dee-ah", which isn't the same as "in-dee-ah" (India)

Ingland would sound "in-glund", which isn't the same as "en-glund" (England)

Some accents might not discriminate between the two, but I know in mine, Estuary English, they sound different.

And to be honest, we choose one spelling and try to keep it consistent, otherwise things get confusing and look messy. This is a prescriptivist perspective, but it's important. In the past, in Middle English, before the dictionary, people would spell words phonetically, and of course the issue with that is that the corresponding glyph-to-sound will vary depending upon pronunciation.

Spellings are centralised by the dictionary and ensure that there are no ambiguities that could arise because two individuals are spelling things differently.

Americans spelling words differently to Britons makes things difficult enough - and that's with just two variants of words.

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