This question already has an answer here:
Unless I am mistaken, when referring to a single thing or entity, one can say
there is or
there's (the contraction of the same). When referring to more than one of something, the correct wording is
there are, however, I am not aware of an actual contraction of the latter, or
As a native speaker, it seems perfectly fine to hear (and to use)
there's in place of
there are (at least for some examples, but I can't think of any that really don't work), but is this a valid grammatical usage?
There are many ways this can be stated.
There's many ways this can be stated.
Am I wrong in accepting this? Should I try to break myself of this?