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I wanted to know whether the expression below is used correctly. More specifically, is it a good idea to use "subsequent" at the beginning of a sentence or not? I've seen multiple examples wherein "subsequent to" is used near the end of a sentence; however, not many like the one I asked below.

Subsequent to this, the paper is concluded.

Many thanks

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    Obviously if 'Subsequent to this' is used, 'this' needs an antecedent. But 'Subsequent to the earthquake which occurred in Southern Italy in November 1980 ...' is unremarkable. But choosing 'Subsequent to' rather than 'Following' is selecting a formal register, which isn't always the best option. // I'd say 'Subsequent to this, the paper is concluded' is very ponderous. Commented Nov 14, 2022 at 15:16
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    There's nothing ungrammatical about the sentence, but it seems an odd way to end a piece of writing. Subsequent to means following on from, so what significant thing is the end of the paper subsequent to? Commented Nov 14, 2022 at 16:06
  • Thanks for all comments and help. Frankly, I learned lots of things after reading these comments that I haven't even thought about. Many thanks.
    – Erfandoaut
    Commented Nov 14, 2022 at 16:25

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It is grammatically correct* but stylistically dreadful. “Subsequent to” is an unnatural Latinate construction consisting of two words with four syllables in place of a common two-syllable English word.

The English word is after.

And if anyone tries to persuade you otherwise, just sing this to them:

Subsequent to your departure, and its lachrymatory consequences,
Subsequent to your departure, obviating all pretences…
…subsequent to your definitive departure.

Likewise “prior to”, for which the English is “before”.

*The present tense is often used to indicate the future in this way, especially in recipes or instructions.

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