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I'm reading a book called Fight Club and there is this sentence that got me confused:

Marla had started going to support groups after she found the first lump.

Now, past perfect is used in this sentence but isn't the usage of p.p is an action occurs before another action. So, if Marla found the first lump, how come she started going to support groups after it? Isn't it the opposite?

Full passage:

You had their full attention. People listened to instead of just waiting for their turn to speak. And when they spoke, they weren't telling you a story. When the two of you talked, you were building something, and afterward you were both different then before. Maria had started going to the support groups after she found the first lump.

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    The action of the story is told in the past tense, and the time when Maria started attending the groups was before that. Commented Aug 26, 2021 at 10:50
  • i still don't understand.
    – c934
    Commented Aug 26, 2021 at 11:44
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    "An action occurring before another action" doesn't mean that both have to be mentioned in the same sentence. The events in the story happened at a certain time. The time when Maria found a lump and then started attending support groups was before that. Commented Aug 26, 2021 at 12:45

3 Answers 3

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The guidance that you should follow is

  1. The past perfect is used in narrative to set background and context.

Marla had started going to support groups after she found the first lump.

after she found the first lump is a subordinate clause (adverbial).

The tense in subordinate clauses is not dependant on the tense in the main clause.

In practice there is little difference between the simple past and the past perfect.

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The past perfective is often enough used according to the time relationship "before a time in the past"; however, the more complete principle, perhaps not often stated, is somewhat different. In fact it is also used for denoting time after a given time in the past. This is explained in A comprehensive grammar of the English language; nevertheless, this grammar also shows, that, as felt, the use of the tenses should be the opposite; past and past perfective are equivalent in the subordinate, but apparently not in the main clause.

  • Marla started going to support groups after she had found the first lump.

  • Marla started going to support groups after she found the first lump. (correct alternative)

(CoGEL § 4.24) The past perfective usually has the meaning of 'past-in-the-past', and can be regarded as an anterior version either of the present perfective or of the simple past. Consider the following examples:

♦ No wonder Miss Matthews' French was excellent - she had lived in Paris since childhood. [1]
♦ When we bought it, the house had been empty for several years. [2]
These can be diagrammed as in Fig 4.24a, which is a special case of the general perfective diagram Fig 4.18 :

enter image description here

More technically, the past perfective may be said to denote any event or state anterior to a time of orientation in the past. The three meanings of 'state', 'event' or 'habit' can all occur. Whereas [1] and [2] have illustrated the 'state' meaning, [3] and [4] illustrate 'event' and 'habit' respectively:

♦ The goalkeeper had injured his leg, and couldn't play. [3]
♦ It was foolish to fire McCabe: in two seasons, he had scored more goals than any other player. [4]

When transposed into the 'past in the past' by means of the past perfective, the contrast between the simple past and the present perfective is neutralized :

♦ My aunt had lived in Italy for four years. [5]
♦ He had died in 1920, before his son was born. [6]

In [5], the four-year period could either be a period leading up to T2, or a period which had ceased before T2, as would be clear in:
♦ In her youth, my aunt had lived in Italy for four years. That's why she spoke Italian so well.

Thus [5] could be a projection further into the past of either [7] or [8]:

♦ My aunt lived in Italy for four years. [7]
♦ My aunt has lived in Italy for four years. [8]

But of course, the past perfective does not have to refer to a more remote time than that referred to by the simple past. In some cases, particularly in a clause introduced by after, the two constructions can be more or less interchangeable:

enter image description here

After places the eating (T2) after Sandra's return (which we may call T3), so the past perfective, which places T3 before T2, is redundant. What difference it does make is a matter of the 'standpoint' of the speaker. In [9] the 'past in past' time T3 is identified as being earlier than T2 by the past perfective; but in [10] it is left to the conjunction after to signal this temporal relation.

enter image description here

Note fig 4.18

enter image description here

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Kate Bunting's comments contain the answer. Let me see if I can clarify any further, without resembling a Star-Trek time-travel plot:

  • The story is already told in the past tense. "You had... People listened."
  • That is the past that "started going" happened "before." If it simply said "Maria started going to support group," then it would be narrating an action occurring at the present point of the story. "Maria had started going" means, "prior to this point in the story, she did something."
  • The fact that the rest of the sentence mentions another time frame ("after") doesn't affect the first phrase.

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